1 Pedro 2

1 Pedro 2:3

Utley writes - This is a FIRST CLASS CONDITIONAL SENTENCE, “since you are sons” (TEV, NIV). The Spirit removes our slavery and bondage and establishes our sonship (cf. Rom. 8:12–17). This assures our inheritance (cf. 1 Pet. 1:4–5). Here is the NIV which renders the "if" with "since" = "NIV Galatians 4:7 So you are no longer a slave, but a son; and since you are a son, God has made you also an heir." (As does the NLT paraphrase) Now I am not a Greek expert but clearly some passages with a first class conditional can be translated with "Since" -- should every first class condition be translated with "since"? That's another question. I think what can help make that decision is examination of the context, so see if "since" makes sense or is non-sense. See the notes below from Mounce and Wallace... Here is the note from Greek Expert William Mounce says...source = Basics of Biblical Greek: Grammar First class conditional sentences. Also called “conditions of fact.” These sentences are saying that if something is true, and let’s assume for the sake of the argument that it is true, then such and such will occur. The apodosis is introduced with εἰ and the verb is in the indicative. ■ Most of the time you will translate εἰ as “if.” The protasis is assumed true for the sake of the argument, but you are not sure whether the protasis is in fact accurate. Sometimes it clearly is not. εἰ ἡ δεξιά σου χεὶρ σκανδαλίζει σε, ἔκκοψον αὐτήν (Matt 5:30). If your right hand causes you to sin, cut it off. (MY COMMENT - CLEARLY IN THIS CONTEXT "SINCE" WOULD NOT BE AN ACCURATE WAY TO TRANSLATE THE "IF IN THIS PASSAGE). εἰ δὲ ἀνάστασις νεκρῶν οὐκ ἔστιν, οὐδὲ Χριστὸς ἐγήγερται (1 Cor 15:13). But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then not even Christ has been raised. ■ Sometimes the apodosis is true, and you may want to translate εἰ as “since.” εἰ γὰρ πιστεύομεν ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἀπέθανεν καὶ ἀνέστη, οὕτως καὶ ὁ θεὸς τοὺς κοιμηθέντας διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἄξει σὺν αὐτῷ (1 Thess 4:14). For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God, through Jesus, will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. This may be over-translating a bit, saying more than what the sentence actually means, but there are times when using “if” adds an element of uncertainty that is not appropriate to the verse. ADDENDUM TO MOUNCE'S BOOK NOTE ABOVE - This is a copy of Mounce's article entitled Is it “if” or “since”? - First class conditional sentences are formed with a protasis (the “if” clause) with εἰ and the indicative (any tense). Their basic meaning is to say that if such-and-such is true (and we will accept the truth of the protasis for the sake of the argument), then such-and-such will occur. Of course, that does not mean the protasis actually is true. It could be a lie, or it could just not be true. In fact, the second class conditional sentence (“condition contrary to fact” it is also called) is identical in form to the first (except that the verb in the protasis is past time) and the protasis is clearly false. “If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me” (Jn 5:46). They clearly do not believe Moses. I have often heard it argued that you should translate the εἰ of the protasis as “since” and not “if” since the protasis is assumed to be true. There certainly are verses in which the use of “if” adds an apparent element of question that is not appropriate for what is being said. Satan says, “If you are the Son of God [εἰ υἱὸς εἶ τοῦ θεοῦ], tell this stone to become bread” (Luke 4:3). There was no question in Satan’s mind who Jesus was. Wallace argues strongly against this practice, saying that it over-translates εἰ, saying more than εἰ actually says (pp. 692f.). Greek has a word for “since,” you don’t know if the speaker “would actually affirm the truth of the protasis,” and sometimes this construction is used with a rhetorical force that is removed by “since.” I came across a great example of this latter argument. When you look at 1 Cor 15:12 out of context, it seems a candidate for “since.” “Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?” There is no question that “Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead,” so why not translate “since Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead”? But look at the next two verses. “But if there is no resurrection of the dead, not even Christ has been raised” (1 Cor 15:13). “And if Christ has not been raised, then our proclamation is groundless, and your faith is to no purpose” (1 Cor 15:14). Here is a rhetorically powerful triad of confessions that Paul is calling the Corinthians to affirm (even though the second is in reverse). Is Christ proclaimed as raised from the dead? Is there a resurrection? Has Christ been raised? The use of “if” in this triad calls for an affirmation of faith on the part of the reader, an affirmation that they believe Christ has been raised from the dead, that there is a resurrection, and that Christ has been raised. “Since” would destroy the rhetorical strength of Paul’s statements. Daniel Wallace (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics) has this note... Semantic Categories of Conditional Sentences 1. First Class Condition (Assumed True for Argument’s Sake) a. Definition The first class condition indicates the assumption of truth for the sake of argument. The normal idea, then, is if—and let us assume that this is true for the sake of argument—then… . This class uses the particle εἰ with the indicative (in any tense) in the protasis. In the apodosis, any mood and any tense can occur. This is a frequent conditional clause, occurring about 300 times in the NT. b. Amplification 1) Not “Since” There are two views of the first class condition that need to be avoided. First is the error of saying too much about its meaning. The first class condition is popularly taken to mean the condition of reality or the condition of truth. Many have heard this from the pulpit: “In the Greek this condition means since.” This is saying too much about the first class condition. For one thing, this view assumes a direct correspondence between language and reality, to the effect that the indicative mood is the mood of fact. For another, this view is demonstrably false for conditional statements: (a) In apparently only 37% of the instances is there a correspondence to reality (to the effect that the condition could be translated since). (b) Further, there are 36 instances of the first class condition in the NT that cannot possibly be translated since. This can be seen especially with two opposed conditional statements. Note the following illustrations. Mt 12:27–28 εἰ ἐγὼ ἐν Βεελζεβοὺλ ἐκβάλλω τὰ δαιμόνια, οἱ υἱοὶ ὑμῶν ἐν τίνι ἐκβάλλουσιν; … (28) εἰ δὲ ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ ἐγὼ ἐκβάλλω τὰ δαιμόνια, ἄρα ἔφθασεν ἐφ ̓ ὑμᾶς ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ. If I cast out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your sons cast them out? … (28) But if I cast out demons by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Obviously it is illogical to translate both sentences as since I cast out, because the arguments are opposed to each other. And it would be inconsistent to translate the first participle if and the second since. 1 Cor 15:13 εἰ δὲ ἀνάστασις νεκρῶν οὐκ ἔστιν, οὐδὲ Χριστὸς ἐγήγερται But if there is no resurrection, then Christ has not been raised. It is self-evident that the apostle Paul could not mean by the first class condition “since there is no resurrection”! Cf. also Mt 5:29–30; 17:4; Mt 26:39 with Mt 26:42; John 10:37; 18:23; 1 Cor 9:17; 1Cor 15:14. MY CONCLUSION - Clearly two Greek authorities disagree about use of "since." one saying yes you can but make sure it makes sense and Wallace saying no you should not translate "If" (1CC) with "since." But for example look at Col 3:1 - "Therefore if (FIRST CLASS CONDITION) you have been raised up with Christ, keep seeking the things above, where Christ is, seated at the right hand of God." So here's the question - have you been raised up with Christ in this context? Clearly the answer is yes since unbelievers could not obey the command to "keep seeking the things above..." And so it is not surprising that the dynamic paraphrase NIV has "Since, then, you have been raised with Christ, set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God. (Col 3:1NIV) Take another example - John 10:37 “ if (FIRST CLASS CONDITION) I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me." To translate that as since would be "non-sense" because did do the works of His Father. And so it is not surprising that none of the Bible versions translate this "if" as "since." In sum it seems that context is king and if we cannot be 100% sure, we should stick with the literal Greek word and translate it with "if" and not with "since."